

The funds, or painting itself, should be returned to the families it was stolen from. That family was very likely Jewish. So you saying “give it to Palestine!” implies taking from Jewish people, which would be unfair, but in this context also implies they “owe” it because Israel is to blame, and Jews=Israel.
I do see your connection now that you have explained it though, I wonder if maybe you just stumbled and missed the very negative subtext within your suggestion.
I didn’t disagree with your “allocation” nor did I accuse you of antisemitism nor did I “connect Israel with all Jews”, perhaps your reading comprehension is worse than you would like to think. Explaining subtext as to why something would be perceived as a thing doesn’t make you that thing.
Let me put it this way: is it antisemitic to forget that the Jewish victim exists when discussing Nazis stealing art ? If not, does it SEEM like antisemitism if YOU then start talking about taking that money/painting that was stolen and rightfully belongs to some Jewish family somewhere, and giving it to Palestine?
Your comment made the connection.